In a suit for money a decree is passed by consent whereby the defendant is directed to pay to the plaintiff Rs. 35,000. It is further declared by the decree that the plaintiff should have a first charge on certain immovable property belonging to the defendant. Is the plaintiff entitled to have the property sold in execution of the decree without institution a regular suit for sale on the charge?

Correct Answer: Yes, because there being no mortgage or charge prior to the decree, the decree cannot be said to have been obtained 'for the payment of money in satisfaction of a claim arising under the mortgage' within the meaning of O. 34 r 14